
Oracle 1z0-1093-25 Practice Test Pdf Exam Material
1z0-1093-25 Answers 1z0-1093-25 Free Demo Are Based On The Real Exam
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which two statements regarding the use of tags in conjunction with Database Management for monitoring are true?
- A. Tags propagate automatically from the database to Database Management; no additional configuration is required.
- B. Tags can be used to filter and search for specific databases within the Database Management console.
- C. Tags can be used to group databases for easier monitoring and analysis in Database Management.
- D. Database Management does not support the use of tags for any monitoring or filtering purposes.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Tagging in Database Management:
Tags in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure are essential fororganizing and managing resources.
* Grouping Databases (A):Tags allow databases to be grouped logically, simplifying management and performance analysis.
* Filtering and Searching (C):Tags make it easier to find specific databases within theDatabase Management console, improving efficiency in large environments.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* B:Tags do not propagate automatically; they must be configured properly.
* D:Tags are actively used in Database Management for organizing and filtering.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which two options correctly describe methods for accessing and managing the Exadata Infrastructure?
- A. Exadata Infrastructure management is solely managed by Oracle and is not directly accessible to customers.
- B. The dbcli utility, used for database administration on VM DB Systems, can also be used to manage the Exadata Infrastructure.
- C. Management of the Exadata Infrastructure is primarily performed through the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) console and APIs.
- D. Direct SSH access to the Exadata Infrastructure compute nodes is permitted for customers with root privileges.
- E. Customers have direct access to the Exadata storage cells, allowing them to modify storage configurations.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Managing Exadata Infrastructure:
* OCI Console and APIs (B):The primary method for managing Exadata Infrastructure is through the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Consoleand associated APIs. This includes provisioning, scaling, patching, and monitoring the Exadata environment.
* Oracle-Managed Infrastructure (E):Exadata Infrastructure management is fully handled by Oracle, which means customers do not have direct access to the underlying hardware. This managed approach ensureshigh availability and security.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A:Customers do not have root access to Exadata compute nodes to ensure security and system integrity.
* C:Thedbcli utilityis designed for VM DB Systems, not Exadata Infrastructure management.
* D:Exadata storage cells are managed by Oracle, and customers cannot directly modify storage configurations.
NEW QUESTION # 27
While operating a MySQL HeatWave cluster, you need to resize the HeatWave cluster to accommodate an increased workload. Which method is the most efficient and recommended way to scale the HeatWave cluster?
- A. Manually altering the innodb_buffer_pool_size and restarting the MySQL server.
- B. Modifying the underlying VM shapes of the MySQL Database System.
- C. Recreating the HeatWave cluster with the desired size.
- D. Performing a manual data export and import into a new, larger MySQL Database System.
- E. Using the OCI CLI or Console to adjust the HeatWave cluster's shape and node count.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Scaling HeatWave Efficiently:
TheOCI CLI or Consoleprovides a streamlined way to scale the HeatWave cluster. You can easily change the shape and node countthrough the console without significant downtime. The system handles the necessary data redistribution and configuration updates automatically.
* This method minimizes disruption and is significantly faster than manual reconfiguration.
* OCI's automated scaling ensures that the cluster maintainsoptimal performancethroughout the operation.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A:Adjusting buffer size affects memory, not cluster size.
* C:Changing VM shapes does not directly affect HeatWave.
* D:Recreating the cluster is inefficient and time-consuming.
* E:Manual export/import introduces downtime and is not efficient for scaling.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which database lifecycle management operation in BaseDB requires the creation of a new database home and is non-reversible after completion?
- A. Upgrading the Oracle Grid Infrastructure.
- B. Enabling Automatic Storage Management (ASM).
- C. Upgrading the Oracle Database software version.
- D. Applying an operating system patch.
- E. Scaling the compute shape of the VM.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Database Software Upgrade:
When upgrading theOracle Database software versionon aBaseDB VM, a newOracle Homeis created to house the upgraded software. Once the database is moved to this new home, the process isnot easily reversible.
* Rolling back would requiredowngrading, which is a complex and risky process.
* The new Oracle Home ensures that the upgraded database environment isisolated from the previous version, preventing compatibility conflicts.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A:Grid Infrastructure upgrades can be managed independently of the database upgrade.
* B:Scaling VMs is a reversible operation.
* D:OS patches do not impact the Oracle Home directly.
* E:ASM configuration changes are reversible.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which component aids in assessing the readiness of a MySQL instance for migration to MySQL HeatWave, specifically identifying potential compatibility issues?
- A. Oracle Cloud Advisor
- B. MySQL Enterprise Monitor
- C. MySQL Shell Upgrade Checker Utility
- D. MySQL Workbench
- E. Oracle SQL Developer
Answer: C
Explanation:
C: MySQL Shell Upgrade Checker Utility:
* The utility analyzes MySQL instances for compatibility with newer versions, such as MySQL 8.0 used by HeatWave.
* It checks for:
* Syntax differences
* Data type mismatches
* Deprecated features
* The tool outputs a report highlighting issues that may impact migration to HeatWave.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A. MySQL Enterprise Monitor:Focuses on monitoring performance, not compatibility.
* B. Oracle SQL Developer:Primarily used for database development, not upgrade checks.
* D. Oracle Cloud Advisor:Provides cloud optimization recommendations, not MySQL compatibility checks.
* E. MySQL Workbench:A visual tool for database design and administration, not specifically for upgrade assessment.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Within an IAM policy for Oracle NoSQL Database Cloud Service, what is the purpose of the "resource" element when defining table access permissions?
- A. To set the expiration date for the IAM policy.
- B. To determine the geographical region where the NoSQL database is located.
- C. To specify the IAM group that the policy applies to.
- D. To define the specific NoSQL table or tables to which the policy's permissions apply.
Answer: D
Explanation:
B: Define specific NoSQL table permissions:
* The"resource"element specifies which Oracle NoSQL tables the IAM policy will apply to.
* It allows fine-grained access control by linking specific tables to permission statements.
* This ensures that only authorized users or groups can perform operations on specified tables.
Example IAM Policy Syntax:
{
"action": "nosql:table:read",
"resource": "ocid1.nosqltable.oc1..exampleuniqueID",
"effect": "allow"
}
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A. Specify IAM group:Groups are defined in the"subject"element, not the "resource" element.
* C. Geographical region:The region is usually part of theOCID(Oracle Cloud Identifier), not directly specified in the resource element.
* D. Set expiration date:Expiry is not defined within the "resource" element.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which two of the following statements are true regarding security considerations for managingExadata Cloud Infrastructure and VM Clusters?
- A. Oracle manages all security aspects of the Exadata Infrastructure, relieving customers of any security responsibilities.
- B. Customers have full access to the Exadata Infrastructure's hypervisor and can implement custom security policies.
- C. Customers are responsible for configuring host-based firewalls on the Exadata Infrastructure to protect against unauthorized access.
- D. Customers are responsible for configuring and maintaining the security of the operating system and database software within the VM Clusters.
- E. Network Security Groups (NSGs) can be used to control network traffic to and from VM Clusters, enhancing security.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
B: Network Security Groups (NSGs) for traffic control:
* NSGs allow customers to defineingress and egress rulesto control network traffic.
* Enhances security by restricting access to only authorized IP ranges and protocols.
* Applied at theVM Clusterlevel to manage connectivity efficiently.
E: Responsibility for OS and database security:
* While Oracle manages the infrastructure layer, customers are responsible for securing theoperating system and databasewithin the VM Clusters.
* This includes applying security patches, configuring firewalls, and implementing user access controls.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A. Host-based firewalls on Exadata Infrastructure:Oracle, not the customer, configures the infrastructure-level security.
* C. Oracle managing all security:Incorrect, as customers manage VM-level security.
* D. Access to hypervisor:Customers do not have hypervisor-level access for security configuration.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Within the context of Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Base Database Service (BaseDB) virtual machine (VM) provisioning, which action is typically the RESPONSIBILITY of the customer?
- A. Automatically applying critical security patches to the operating system.
- B. Ensuring the underlying hardware infrastructure remains fault-tolerant.
- C. Managing the Oracle Grid Infrastructure software stack.
- D. Maintaining the OCI hypervisor software.
Answer: C
Explanation:
B: Managing the Oracle Grid Infrastructure software stack:
* Customers are responsible for the installation, configuration, and maintenance of the Oracle Grid Infrastructure when using BaseDB VMs.
* This includes managing Oracle Clusterware and Automatic Storage Management (ASM) if applicable.
* Ensuring the Grid Infrastructure's availability and performance is part of customer-managed tasks.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A. Hardware fault tolerance:Managed by Oracle Cloud Infrastructure.
* C. Hypervisor maintenance:Handled by Oracle as part of the OCI infrastructure.
* D. Security patching:While OCI provides tools, the responsibility for OS patching lies with the customer.
NEW QUESTION # 33
You are responsible for managing the storage configuration of an Exadata Database Service (ExaDB). You need to use the cellcli utility to modify the IORM (I/O Resource Management) settings to prioritize critical database workloads. Specifically, you want to adjust the share allocation for a specific database. Which cellcli command will accomplish this?
- A. cellcli modify iormplan database dbname shares=value
- B. cellcli alter iormplan database dbname shares=value
- C. cellcli change iormplan database dbname shares=value
- D. cellcli configure iormplan database dbname shares=value
Answer: B
Explanation:
A: cellcli alter iormplan database dbname shares=value
CellCLI Utility:
* cellcli is a command-line interface used to manage Exadata storage cells.
* Thealtercommand is used to modify existing configurations, including IORM plans.
* IORM (I/O Resource Management):
* Helps control how I/O resources are allocated among databases.
* Thesharesparameter adjusts the relative priority of I/O requests.
* Correct syntax for adjusting IORM:
bash
CopyEdit
cellcli -e "alter iormplan database dbname shares=value"
Why the other options are incorrect:
* B. configure iormplan:Used for creating or setting up new IORM plans, not for modification.
* C. modify iormplan:modify is not a valid command in CellCLI for IORM.
* D. change iormplan:No such command exists in CellCLI.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which two tools can you use to create a HeatWave MySQL Database Service System?
- A. OCI Command Line Interface
- B. OCI Console
- C. OCI Bastion Server
- D. OCI SQL Developer
- E. MySQL Shell on OCI Compute
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
OCI Console:
The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Console is the primary graphical interface for creating and managingMySQL HeatWave Database Service Systems. It provides a user-friendly environment for configuring database instances and integrating HeatWave.
OCI CLI:
The OCI Command Line Interface allows for automation and scripting of database service creation. It is useful when managing multiple instances or performing bulk operations.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* C:OCI Bastion Server is used for secure SSH access, not for database creation.
* D:MySQL Shell is a client tool for interacting with databases, not for provisioning them.
* E:OCI SQL Developer is a database management tool, not a service provisioning tool.
NEW QUESTION # 35
How does HeatWave address the challenges of Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) compared to traditional row-based database systems?
- A. HeatWave employs a columnar data format in memory, enabling faster scans and aggregations for complex queries.
- B. HeatWave leverages a distributed caching mechanism to store frequently accessed data.
- C. HeatWave automatically shards the database to distribute the workload across multiple nodes.
- D. HeatWave uses a specialized indexing technique to speed up data retrieval.
- E. HeatWave leverages AI-powered indexing to optimize the data retrieval.
Answer: A
Explanation:
HeatWave's Columnar Processing:
HeatWave improves OLAP performance by storing data in acolumnar formatin memory. This format is particularly efficient foranalytical queriesbecause:
* It minimizes the amount of data read by only scanning thenecessary columns.
* Columnar storage supportsvectorized processing, which significantly speeds up aggregation operations.
* Beingin-memory, it eliminates disk I/O bottlenecks, crucial for high-speed analytics.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A:Indexing is useful, but columnar storage is the primary driver of speed.
* C:Caching improves access times but does not address the fundamental OLAP challenge of processing large datasets.
* D:HeatWave distributes workload usingparallel processing, not simple sharding.
* E:AI-powered indexing is not a core feature of HeatWave.
NEW QUESTION # 36
When considering autoscaling for provisioned throughput in NoSQL Database Cloud Service, which metric is LEAST relevant for determining when to scale up the capacity units?
- A. Number of rejected read requests due to insufficient RCUs.
- B. Number of rejected write requests due to insufficient WCUs.
- C. Latency of read and write operations.
- D. CPU utilization of the compute instances hosting the database.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A: CPU utilization of the compute instances hosting the database:
* Autoscaling in NoSQL Database Cloud Service primarily focuses onRCUs (Read Capacity Units)and WCUs (Write Capacity Units).
* The objective is to dynamically adjust capacity based onquery workload, not onCPU utilization.
* Even if CPU usage is high, it might not necessarily indicate that the capacity units are inadequate.
Why the other options are more relevant:
* B. Rejected read requests (RCUs):Direct indicator that read capacity is insufficient, requiring scaling.
* C. Rejected write requests (WCUs):Indicates that the write throughput is inadequate, necessitating scaling.
* D. Latency of read and write operations:Increased latency often points to under-provisioned throughput.
NEW QUESTION # 37
The concept of 'schema-less' in the context of NoSQL databases primarily refers to what?
- A. Data is stored in a highly structured format, mirroring the tabular structure of relational databases with predefined columns and data types.
- B. The database automatically infers the schema from the data being inserted, without requiring any explicit schema definition beforehand.
- C. Data is stored in a binary format, eliminating the need for any schema or data interpretation.
- D. All data stored within the database must conform to a single, universally defined schema for consistency.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Schema-less in NoSQL:
This means you don't need to define a rigid, fixed structure before data insertion. Each record can have its own structure, allowing flexibility for evolving data models. This is useful for unstructured or semi-structured data.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* B:This describes relational databases.
* C:This describes the structured nature of SQL databases.
* D:While binary formats may be used, schema-less refers to the logical, not physical, structure.
NEW QUESTION # 38
What is the MOST effective method to minimize the recovery time objective (RTO) for a BaseDB database in the event of a complete DB system failure, assuming both cost and complexity are important considerations?
- A. Implementing a custom script to regularly copy data files to a secondary block volume.
- B. Using Oracle Data Guard with asynchronous replication to a different availability domain within the same region.
- C. Performing frequent incremental backups with block change tracking enabled.
- D. Using Oracle Data Guard with synchronous replication to a remote region.
- E. Relying solely on regular full database backups.
Answer: B
Explanation:
C: Using Oracle Data Guard with asynchronous replication to a different availability domain within the same region.
Asynchronous Replication:
* Minimizes performance impact while ensuring data protection.
* Placing standby in the same region reduces latency and cost.
* Fast switchover reduces RTO.
Why the other options are less effective:
* A. Full backups:Time-consuming for recovery.
* B. Synchronous to a remote region:Increases latency and cost.
* D. Incremental backups:Slower recovery process.
* E. Custom script:Complex and less reliable than Data Guard.
NEW QUESTION # 39
In comparing NoSQL databases with relational databases, what constitutes a fundamental difference in their approach to data relationships?
- A. Relational databases offer no mechanism for defining relationships between different data sets.
- B. Relational databases primarily rely on foreign keys to define relationships, while NoSQL databases often embed related data within a single document or use application-level links.
- C. NoSQL databases exclusively use foreign keys to establish relationships, similar to relational database models.
- D. NoSQL databases universally lack the ability to represent relationships between data elements.
Answer: B
Explanation:
B: Relational vs. NoSQL data relationships:
* Relational Databases:Useforeign keysto establish relationships between tables, maintaining referential integrity.
* NoSQL Databases:Typically do not enforce relationships through foreign keys. Instead, they:
* Embed related datawithin a single document (common in document stores like MongoDB).
* Useapplication-level joinsto link related data (common in key-value or column-family stores).
* Graph databases (a type of NoSQL) useedgesto explicitly represent relationships between nodes.
* This difference highlights theflexibility vs. consistencytrade-off between NoSQL and relational databases.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A. NoSQL databases lack relationships:Incorrect; they handle relationships differently.
* C. NoSQL using foreign keys exclusively:NoSQL databases generally do not enforce such relationships.
* D. Relational databases lack relationship mechanisms:Incorrect as relational databases are designed around relationships.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which two are valid mechanisms for accessing OS-level metrics on a Base Database Service Virtual Machine?
- A. Access OS metrics using the OCI Metrics Explorer within the OCI Console leveraging the Oracle Cloud Agent.
- B. All OS metrics are automatically pushed to the Cloud Exadata Service Dashboard, and are not available outside of this service.
- C. Access OS metrics programmatically via the OCI Monitoring APIs, which allow retrieval of metrics collected by the Oracle Cloud Agent.
- D. The only way to access OS-level metrics is through a custom monitoring agent installed directly on the VM.
- E. Utilize the vmcli utility, which allows access to OS-level metrics specific to the DB System.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
B: Access OS metrics using the OCI Metrics Explorer within the OCI Console leveraging the Oracle Cloud Agent.
* OCI Metrics Explorer is part of the OCI Monitoring service.
* The Oracle Cloud Agent collects OS-level metrics and makes them available through the OCI Console.
* Users can view metrics like CPU usage, memory utilization, and disk I/O.
E: Access OS metrics programmatically via the OCI Monitoring APIs:
* The Oracle Cloud Agent collects OS metrics and exposes them via OCI Monitoring APIs.
* This approach allows for automated data retrieval and integration with external monitoring tools.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A. vmcli utility:This is not a standard tool for accessing OS-level metrics on Base Database Service VMs.
* C. Custom monitoring agent:While possible, it is not the primary or only method. Oracle Cloud Agent is the default tool.
* D. Automatically pushed to the Cloud Exadata Service Dashboard:This statement is incorrect as OS metrics are available through OCI Monitoring.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which two are valid storage options you must select when provisioning Exadata Database Service using the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Console?
- A. Data disk group encryption using Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Vault.
- B. The size of the DATA disk group and RECO disk group.
- C. Data disk group compression and deduplication algorithm.
- D. The database name and version.
- E. The number of CPUs required for the Exadata Database Service Instance.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
A:Data disk group encryption using OCI Vault provides enhanced security for sensitive data by encrypting data stored within the Exadata storage cells.
B:During provisioning, the size of theDATA and RECO disk groupsmust be specified. The DATA disk group is used for primary database files, while the RECO disk group is used for recovery-related files.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* C:CPU count is part of the compute configuration, not storage.
* D:Compression and deduplication settings are managed at the database level, not during storage configuration.
* E:Database name and version are part of the database configuration, not storage settings.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which two of the following options are valid statements regarding the management of the operating system on a Base Database Service Virtual Machine DB System?
- A. Customers are responsible for the initial OS installation, but then patching is controlled entirely by Oracle.
- B. Customers have full root access to the underlying operating system of the Virtual Machine DB System, allowing for customization and installation of custom software.
- C. Oracle manages the underlying operating system patching and updates, ensuring the system remains secure and compliant.
- D. Direct SSH access to the underlying VM is restricted, and all OS-level operations must be performed through the Web Console.
- E. Customers are responsible for the security and maintenance of the operating system, including applying necessary patches and updates.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
B: Full root access:
* Customers have root-level access to manage the OS, install custom software, and configure settings.
* This provides flexibility to meet specific application requirements.
D: Responsibility for OS security:
* With root access, customers must manage OS security, including updates and patches.
* Oracle provides tools to facilitate patching, but the responsibility lies with the customer.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A. Restricted SSH access:SSH access is allowed for VM DB systems.
* C. Oracle-managed OS patching:Oracle does not automatically patch the OS; this is a customer responsibility.
* E. Initial OS installation by customers:The OS is pre-installed, but ongoing maintenance is customer- driven.
NEW QUESTION # 43
When provisioning a Base Database Service (BaseDB) virtual machine (VM) instance in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI), which of the following actions MUST be performed before launching the DB system?
- A. Creating a Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) with appropriate subnets and security rules.
- B. Configuring the Data Guard association between the VM and a standby database.
- C. Configuring Oracle GoldenGate replication.
- D. Creating a backup policy for the database being provisioned.
Answer: A
Explanation:
VCN Requirement:
AVirtual Cloud Network (VCN)is essential for creating a BaseDB VM instance because itprovidesnetwork connectivityandIP addressing. Subnets and security rules define the access policies and network segmentation.
Without a VCN, the VM instance cannot communicate with other resources or external networks.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A:Data Guard can be configured after provisioning.
* B:Backup policies are important but can be set up later.
* D:Oracle GoldenGate replication is optional and not required at the time of provisioning.
NEW QUESTION # 44
You are managing an Exadata Database Service (ExaDB) and need to perform a full backup of the database to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage using the bkup_api utility. The backup must include all datafiles and control files. Which bkup_api command will achieve this?
- A. bkup_api bkup_start --full --dbname=dbname
- B. bkup_api bkup_start --all --dbname=dbname
- C. bkup_api bkup_start --datafiles --controlfile --dbname=dbname
- D. bkup_api bkup_start --dbname=dbname
Answer: A
Explanation:
Full Backup with bkup_api:
The --full flag in thebkup_api commandensures that the backup includesall datafiles and control files. This command is essential for creating acomplete, consistent backupsuitable for recovery purposes.
* The backup is stored inOCI Object Storage, leveraging cloud scalability and redundancy.
* The --dbname parameter specifies which database to back up.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A:This command may initiate a default backup, not a full one.
* B:Specifying files individually is less efficient than using --full.
* D:The --all option does not necessarily imply a full backup.
NEW QUESTION # 45
When cloning a BaseDB database for development and testing, which of the following considerations is MOST critical to ensure compliance with data privacy regulations?
- A. Scheduling the cloning operation during off-peak hours.
- B. Masking or anonymizing sensitive data in the cloned database.
- C. Maintaining the same network security group (NSG) rules as the production database.
- D. Using the same database version as the production database.
- E. Ensuring the compute shape of the cloned database is identical to the production database.
Answer: B
Explanation:
B: Masking or anonymizing sensitive data:
* Data privacy regulations (likeGDPR,HIPAA) mandate thatpersonally identifiable information (PII) is protected, even in non-production environments.
* Cloning a database without masking sensitive data could expose confidential information to unauthorized users.
* Techniques include:
* Data masking:Replacing real data with realistic, but non-sensitive values.
* Data anonymization:Irreversibly removing personally identifiable information.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A. Matching compute shape:Relevant to performance, not privacy.
* C. Using the same database version:Important for compatibility, but not related to data privacy.
* D. Same NSG rules:Important for network security, but does not directly address data exposure.
* E. Off-peak scheduling:Minimizes disruption but does not address data protection.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which two functionalities are provided by the SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA) within Database Management, aiding in cloud database tuning?
- A. Compare the performance of SQL statements before and after a database change (e.g., upgrade, parameter change).
- B. Analyze the execution plan of a SQL statement and suggest alternative indexing strategies.
- C. Automatically rewrite SQL queries to improve their performance.
- D. Generate a report highlighting the performance impact of a specific database change on a set of SQL statements.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
B: Compare SQL performance before and after changes:
* SPA evaluates the effect of configuration changes, upgrades, or patches on SQL performance.
* Provides insights into whether a change improves or degrades query performance.
C: Generate performance impact reports:
* SPA generates reports summarizing the effects of specific changes on SQL workload performance.
* Helps DBAs make informed decisions before implementing changes in production.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A. Automatically rewriting SQL:SPA does not modify queries; it only analyzes and compares performance.
* D. Suggesting indexing strategies:SPA evaluates performance impacts, but indexing recommendations are made by the SQL Tuning Advisor.
NEW QUESTION # 47
In a BaseDB environment configured with automatic backups, what happens to the automatic backups when the DB system is terminated?
- A. Automatic backups are migrated to a lower-cost archive storage tier.
- B. All automatic backups are retained in object storage for a period determined by the original backup retention policy.
- C. The retention of automatic backups after DB system termination is configurable during DB system creation.
- D. All automatic backups are immediately and permanently deleted from object storage.
- E. The most recent automatic backup is retained, while older backups are deleted.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Backup Retention Policy:
When aBaseDB system is terminated, automatic backups are not immediately deleted. Instead, they remain stored inOCI Object Storagefor the duration specified by thebackup retention policythat was configured at the time of database creation.
* This approach ensures that data can be recovered even after the database instance itself is terminated.
* Administrators can manually delete backups if they are no longer needed, but they arenot automatically purged.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A:Backups are not deleted instantly upon termination.
* B:All backups are retained as per the policy, not just the most recent.
* D:No automatic migration to archive tier occurs.
* E:Backup retention settings are defined during provisioning, but not dynamically configurable after termination.
NEW QUESTION # 48
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1z0-1093-25 [Sep-2025] Newly Released] Exam Questions For You To Pass: https://prep4sure.examtorrent.com/1z0-1093-25-exam-papers.html
