Real IAPP CIPP-US Exam Dumps with Correct 228 Questions and Answers
Valid CIPP-US Test Answers & IAPP CIPP-US Exam PDF
Earning the CIPP-US certification demonstrates a high level of knowledge and expertise in U.S. privacy laws and regulations, which is increasingly important in today's digital age. Certified Information Privacy Professional/United States (CIPP/US) certification also provides professionals with a competitive advantage in the job market and can lead to higher salaries and career advancement opportunities.
The CIPP-US exam covers a wide range of topics related to privacy, including privacy laws and regulations in the United States, privacy program governance, information security, data breach management, and privacy risk management. CIPP-US exam is divided into multiple-choice questions and consists of 90 questions that must be answered in 2.5 hours. To pass the exam, candidates must score at least 300 out of 500 points. Certified Information Privacy Professional/United States (CIPP/US) certification is valid for two years and requires individuals to earn 20 continuing privacy education (CPE) credits to maintain their certification.
NEW QUESTION # 79
Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA), what must a person who is denied employment based upon his credit history receive?
- A. Information from several consumer reporting agencies (CRAs).
- B. A list of rights from the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB).
- C. An opportunity to reapply with the employer.
- D. A prompt notification from the employer.
Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.consumerfinance.gov/compliance/supervision-examinations/fair-credit-reporting-act-fcra-examination-procedures/ In 2010, Congress passed the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act), which granted rule-making authority under FCRA (except for Section 615(e) (red flag guidelines and regulation) and Section 628 (disposal of records) to the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB). The Dodd-Frank Act also amended two provisions of the FCRA to require the disclosure of a credit score and related information when a credit score is used in taking an adverse action or in risk-based pricing.
NEW QUESTION # 80
Which jurisdiction must courts have in order to hear a particular case?
- A. Subject matter jurisdiction and professional jurisdiction
- B. Subject matter jurisdiction and regulatory jurisdiction
- C. Personal jurisdiction and professional jurisdiction
- D. Personal jurisdiction and subject matter jurisdiction
Answer: D
Explanation:
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NEW QUESTION # 81
What consumer service was the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) originally intended to provide?
- A. The ability to receive reports from multiple credit reporting agencies.
- B. The ability to correct inaccurate credit information.
- C. The ability to investigate incidents of identity theft.
- D. The ability to appeal negative credit-based decisions.
Answer: B
Explanation:
, "..Specifically, FCRA mandates accurate and relevant data collection, provides consumers with the ability to access and correct their information, and limits the use of consumer reports to defined permissible purposes".
NEW QUESTION # 82
Under the California Consumer Privacy Act (as amended by the California Pnvacy Rights Act), a consumer may Initiate a civil action against a business for?
- A. Any personal information that is subject to unauthorized access or disclosure.
- B. A security breach of certain categories of personal information that is nonencrypted and nonredacted
- C. Failure to implement and maintain security practices set out in regulations issued by the California Privacy Protection Agency (CPPA).
- D. Failure to implement and maintain reasonable security procedures and practices to protect the personal information held.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Under the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA), as amended by the California Privacy Rights Act (CPRA), consumers have the right to initiate a civil action if a business fails to adequately protect their personal information and a security breach occurs. This right applies specifically to breaches of certain categories of personal information that are unencrypted and unredacted.
Key Details of CCPA/CPRA Civil Actions:
* Security Breaches:
* A consumer can sue a business if the breach involves personal information such as Social Security numbers, driver's license numbers, or financial account information, provided that the data was unencrypted and unredacted.
* Reasonable Security Practices:
* Businesses are required to implement and maintain reasonable security practices to protect personal information. Failure to do so may expose the business to liability in case of a breach.
* Categories of Data Covered:
* The law specifies that only certain sensitive categories of personal information are actionable under a civil suit.
Explanation of Options:
* A. Any personal information that is subject to unauthorized access or disclosure:This is incorrect.
The civil action is limited to specific sensitive data categories, not all personal information.
* B. A security breach of certain categories of personal information that is nonencrypted and nonredacted:This is correct. Civil actions under the CCPA/CPRA apply to breaches involving specific sensitive data that is not encrypted or redacted.
* C. Failure to implement and maintain reasonable security procedures and practices to protect the personal information held:While this is a requirement under the law, it does not by itself provide grounds for a civil action. A security breach must occur for a consumer to sue.
* D. Failure to implement and maintain security practices set out in regulations issued by the California Privacy Protection Agency (CPPA):This is incorrect. Civil actions are tied to breaches of sensitive data, not a failure to meet specific agency guidelines.
References from CIPP/US Materials:
* CCPA/CPRA (Civil Code § 1798.150): Outlines the private right of action for security breaches involving certain unencrypted and unredacted data.
* IAPP CIPP/US Certification Textbook: Discusses the conditions under which consumers may bring civil actions under the CCPA/CPRA.
NEW QUESTION # 83
What role does the U.S. Constitution play in the area of workplace privacy?
- A. It provides contractual protections to members of labor unions, but not to employees at will
- B. It provides significant protections to federal and state governments, but not to private-sector employment
- C. It provides legal precedent for physical information security, but not for electronic security
- D. It provides enforcement resources to large employers, but not to small businesses
Answer: B
Explanation:
The U.S. Constitution has significant workplace privacy provisions that apply to the federal and state governments, but they do not affect private-sector employment. Notably, the Fourth Amendment prohibits unreasonable searches and seizures by state actors. Courts have interpreted this amendment to place limits on the ability of government employers to search employees' private spaces, such as lockers and desks.4 Some states, including California, have extended their constitutional rights to privacy to private-sector employees.5 In general for private-sector actors, however, there is no state action, and no constitutional law governs employment privacy
NEW QUESTION # 84
Which of the following conditions would NOT be sufficient to excuse an entity from providing breach notification under state law?
- A. If the data involved was encrypted.
- B. If the entity followed internal notification procedures compatible with state law.
- C. If the data involved was accessed but not exported.
- D. If the entity was subject to the GLBA Safeguards Rule.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Most state breach notification laws require entities to notify affected individuals and/or regulators when there is unauthorized access to or acquisition of personal information that compromises its security, confidentiality, or integrity. However, some states provide exceptions to this requirement under certain conditions, such as:
* If the data involved was encrypted or otherwise rendered unreadable or unusable, and the encryption key or other means of access was not compromised. This is based on the assumption that encrypted data is not accessible to unauthorized parties, even if they obtain the data.
* If the entity was subject to and complied with another federal or state law that provides similar or greater protection and notification requirements, such as the GLBA Safeguards Rule or the HIPAA Breach Notification Rule. This is to avoid duplication or inconsistency of obligations for entities that are already regulated by other laws.
* If the entity conducted a risk assessment and determined that there is no reasonable likelihood of harm to the affected individuals, based on factors such as the nature and extent of the data, the circumstances of the breach, the evidence of misuse, and the ability to mitigate the risk. This is to allow entities to exercise some discretion and judgment in evaluating the potential impact of the breach.
However, none of the state laws provide an exception for the mere access of data without exportation. Access alone is considered a breach that triggers the notification requirement, unless one of the other conditions applies. Therefore, option B is not a sufficient excuse for not providing breach notification under state law.
References:
* [IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide], Chapter 9: State Data Security Laws, pp. 209-211.
* CIPP/US Practice Questions (Sample Questions), Question 29.
NEW QUESTION # 85
How did the Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act (FACTA) amend the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA)?
- A. It increased the obligation of organizations to dispose of consumer data in ways that prevent unauthorized access
- B. It stipulated the purpose of obtaining a consumer report can only be for a review of the employee's credit worthiness
- C. It required employers to get an employee's consent in advance of requesting a consumer report for internal investigation purposes
- D. It expanded the definition of "consumer reports" to include communications relating to employee investigations
Answer: A
Explanation:
FACTA added a new section to the FCRA that requires any person who maintains or otherwise possesses consumer information, or any compilation of consumer information, derived from consumer reports for a business purpose, to properly dispose of any such information or compilation. The purpose of this provision is to reduce the risk of identity theft and other consumer harm resulting from improper disposal of consumer information. The FTC and other federal agencies have issued rules implementing this provision, which specify the reasonable measures that covered entities must take to ensure secure disposal of consumer information, such as burning, pulverizing, shredding, erasing, or otherwise modifying the information to make it unreadable or indecipherable (16 CFR § 682.3). References: 1, 2, 3
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which of the following would NOT constitute an exception to the authorization requirement under the HIPAA Privacy Rule?
- A. Disclosing health information needed to pay a third party billing administrator.
- B. Disclosing health information needed to treat a medical emergency.
- C. Disclosing health information for public health activities.
- D. Disclosing health information to file a child abuse report.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The HIPAA Privacy Rule requires covered entities to obtain an individual's written authorization for any use or disclosure of protected health information (PHI) that is not for treatment, payment, or health care operations or otherwise permitted or required by the Privacy Rule. However, there are some exceptions to the authorization requirement for certain public interest-related activities, such as disclosing health information for public health activities, reporting child abuse, or treating a medical emergency. These exceptions are intended to balance the privacy interests of individuals with the public interest in protecting health and safety, promoting quality health care, and ensuring compliance with the law. Disclosing health information needed to pay a third party billing administrator is not one of the exceptions to the authorization requirement, as it is considered a payment activity that falls under the general rule of requiring authorization. Therefore, it is the correct answer to the question. References: Summary of the HIPAA Privacy Rule, HIPAA Exceptions, Exceptions to HIPAA Privacy Rule, Waiver of Authorization, IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide, Chapter 5.
NEW QUESTION # 87
A student has left high school and is attending a public postsecondary institution. Under what condition may a school legally disclose educational records to the parents of the student without consent?
- A. If the student has applied to transfer to another institution
- B. If the student has not yet turned 18 years of age
- C. If the student is in danger of academic suspension
- D. If the student is still a dependent for tax purposes
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://www2.ed.gov/policy/gen/guid/fpco/pdf/ferpafaq.pdf
NEW QUESTION # 88
In a case of civil litigation, what might a defendant who is being sued for distributing an employee's private information face?
- A. Probation.
- B. An injunction.
- C. A jail sentence.
- D. Criminal fines.
Answer: B
Explanation:
An injunction is a court order that requires a party to stop or refrain from doing something. In a case of civil litigation, a defendant who is being sued for distributing an employee's private information might face an injunction that prohibits them from further disclosing or using the employee's private information. An injunction is a form of equitable relief that aims to prevent or remedy harm that cannot be adequately compensated by monetary damages. Probation, criminal fines, and jail sentences are forms of criminal sanctions that are not applicable in civil litigation, unless the defendant is also charged with a criminal offense related to the distribution of the employee's private information.
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which legislation provides privacy provisions for the exemption of disclosure of certain biomedical information, securing remote access to view PHI, prohibiting the blocking of information, certificates of confidentiality, and compassionate sharing of mental health or substance abuse information with family or caregivers?
- A. HIPAA Security Rule of 2003
- B. 21st Century Cures Act of 2016
- C. GINA of 2008
- D. HITECH of 2013
Answer: B
Explanation:
The purpose of the 21st Century Cures Act (tures Act? is to expedite the research process for new medical devices and prescription drugs, quicken the process for drug approval, and reform mental health treatment.
NEW QUESTION # 90
Which venture would be subject to the requirements of Section 5 of the Federal Trade Commission Act?
- A. A city bus system's frequent rider program
- B. A local nonprofit charity's fundraiser
- C. A national bank's no-fee checking promotion
- D. An online merchant's free shipping offer
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section 5 of the Federal Trade Commission Act (FTC Act) prohibits "unfair or deceptive acts or practices in or affecting commerce."1 This prohibition applies to all persons engaged in commerce, including banks, but also exempts some entities, such as nonprofit organizations and common carriers, from FTC jurisdiction.
2 Therefore, among the four options, only an online merchant's free shipping offer would be subject to the requirements of Section 5, as it involves a commercial activity that could potentially mislead or harm consumers. For example, if the online merchant fails to disclose the terms and conditions of the offer, or charges hidden fees, or delivers the products late or damaged, it could violate Section 5 by engaging in a deceptive practice.3 References: 1: Section 5 | Federal Trade Commission 2: Federal Trade Commission Act Section 5: Unfair or Deceptive Acts or Practices, page 13: IAPP CIPP/US Certified Information Privacy Professional Study Guide, page 23.
NEW QUESTION # 91
Which of the following is NOT a principle found in the APEC Privacy Framework?
- A. Privacy by Design.
- B. Preventing Harm.
- C. Access and Correction.
- D. Integrity of Personal Information.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 92
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next QUESTION :
A US-based startup company is selling a new gaming application. One day, the CEO of the company receives an urgent letter from a prominent EU-based retail partner. Triggered by an unresolved complaint lodged by an EU resident, the letter describes an ongoing investigation by a supervisory authority into the retailer's data handling practices.
The complainant accuses the retailer of improperly disclosing her personal data, without consent, to parties in the United States. Further, the complainant accuses the EU-based retailer of failing to respond to her withdrawal of consent and request for erasure of her personal dat a. Your organization, the US-based startup company, was never informed of this request for erasure by the EU-based retail partner. The supervisory authority investigating the complaint has threatened the suspension of data flows if the parties involved do not cooperate with the investigation. The letter closes with an urgent request: "Please act immediately by identifying all personal data received from our company." This is an important partnership. Company executives know that its biggest fans come from Western Europe; and this retailer is primarily responsible for the startup's rapid market penetration.
As the Company's data privacy leader, you are sensitive to the criticality of the relationship with the retailer.
Under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), how would the U.S.-based startup company most likely be classified?
- A. As a data supervisor
- B. As a data manager
- C. As a data controller
- D. As a data processor
Answer: D
Explanation:
Processor is the answer and correct based on the fact that the EU retailer was collecting consents and sending data internationally to US. The distractor of lack of consent and the instruction somehow implied that it now needs to be adhered to by the processor despite controller EU Retailer messing up should be mindfully sidestepped. Supervisor and Controller are synonymous with both terms used in the GDPR. Data manager is not a term used in GDPR.
NEW QUESTION # 93
Which power was NOT granted to the California Privacy Protection Agency by the California Privacy Rights Act (CPRA)?
- A. Investigating possible violations of the CCPA on the agency's own initiative.
- B. Adopting and updating CCPA regulations
- C. Imposing administrative fines for violations of the CCPA
- D. Overriding decisions of the Attorney General regarding CCPA enforcement
Answer: D
Explanation:
The California Privacy Rights Act (CPRA), which amends the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA)
, created the California Privacy Protection Agency (CPPA). This agency has been granted significant authority to regulate and enforce California privacy laws, but it does not have the authority to override decisions made by the California Attorney General regarding CCPA enforcement.
Powers Granted to the CPPA by the CPRA:
* Adopting and Updating CCPA Regulations:
* The CPPA has rulemaking authority, meaning it can adopt, amend, and update CCPA regulations to clarify obligations under the law.
* This is explicitly stated in the CPRA.
* Investigating Violations:
* The CPPA can independently investigate potential violations of the CCPA, even without a complaint from a consumer.
* Imposing Administrative Fines:
* The CPPA has the authority to impose administrative fines for violations of the CCPA, which is critical for enforcing compliance.
Explanation of Option C:
While the CPPA has broad regulatory and enforcement powers, it cannot override decisions made by the Attorney General. The Attorney General retains certain oversight functions, particularly in transitioning enforcement authority to the CPPA. The CPPA's role is independent and complementary to that of the Attorney General, not one of supremacy.
References from CIPP/US Materials:
* California Privacy Rights Act (CPRA): Specifies the creation, powers, and responsibilities of the CPPA.
* IAPP CIPP/US Certification Textbook: Discusses the CPPA's rulemaking and enforcement authority.
NEW QUESTION # 94
......
More Exam Details
The CIPP-US evaluation checks different topics that are related to data privacy. Some of the tested domains are the basics of the US Privacy Environment, the laws around the collection and the use of data in the private sector, regulations around access to private-sector data by the government, privacy at the workplace as well as privacy laws in different states. Such an exam also tests the candidate's knowledge of the laws and regulations around the movement of private information within the US, to and from the US, the EU, and other relevant jurisdictions. As for the evaluation facts, the CIPP-US exam includes 90 questions that a candidate ought to finish in 2.5 hours. The initial test attempt costs $550, but if one has another certification from IAPP, he or she gets a discount and only pays a fee of $375. In case of a retake, the amount to pay is also $375. The least score that one has to obtain is 300 points, where the range starts from 100 to 500 grades. Then, for the certificate’s maintenance, a candidate is required to pay a fee of $250 every two years. Still, the renewal fee is included in the membership cost for IAPP members. To add more, the vendor offers this test all through the year. However, the exam time and date may vary depending on the candidate‘s location. Lastly, all candidates should book their slots early enough, at least 90 days before the actual exam date.
CIPP-US Exam Questions and Valid PMP Dumps PDF: https://prep4sure.examtorrent.com/CIPP-US-exam-papers.html
